Col. Homestar wrote:If you choose to go the route of saying my responses are "empty" then I guess you really aren't open to explanations.
I acknowledged that some of your explanations were interesting, that I would further explore them.
As far as:If the Bible is inspired, why didn't God allow for more clarity (I'm not gonna go into free will), but why didn't he say: Don't use my Word to justify slavery http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Catholic_C ... nd_slavery, don't use my word to justify oppressing women http://www.nobeliefs.com/DarkBible/darkbible7.htm, don't use my word to justify taking Natives' lands away, don't use my word to justify viewing others as inferior or torturing nonbelievers, and don't use my word to justify opposition to homosexuality. Why wasn't this made clear? Answer: a) No one knew that the Bible would be used to justify torturing innocents, etc. or b) no one cared.
or c) The Bible is not to blame for those atrocities. You don't lock up auto makers because someone used a car to run someone over. Many things done in God's name are done to discredit it. I didn't say it was "to blame." I said, if it was inspired, why was there no corresponding effort to make these things clear. If God is omniscient, he knew these things would be done in his name. Why not stop it? Why provide laws like the 10 Commandments (and prove that you are interested in the morality of your people) but not explicitly forbid the evils that would be done later?
But you are going to believe what you want to believe just as I will. (Shrugging) Not true. I make the study of history and of religion my pastime - I learn and come to objective (what I think are objective conclusion).
A bold comment Pepsi. However you corner yourself because you must admit then that if they can be debunked, then it must be the Word of God.
Didn't see this the first time. I will say that you're committing another logical fallacy. What I'm saying here is perfectly reasonable: You say the Bible is infallible, IF there is a mistake, it isn't. That's straightforward. If you can debunk it, that doesn't mean the whole text is absolutely perfect. This is one of those times where it doesn't work both ways.
That's like someone saying,:
Person 1"Obamacare is PERFECT."
Person 2"No it's not, the individual mandate has caused more harm than good bc good people are now choosing to take the penalty because the rates that we thought were going down didn't and they can't afford good health insurance."
*5 years later.*
Person 1: "Ooh, it looks as though the individual mandate has paid off. More people now have access to affordable health care. See, Obamacare IS perfect because the flaw you brought up was proved wrong."
Person 2:"But wait, just because one flaw happens not to be a flaw (and we can still debate if that's true or not) doesn't automatically mean the whole bill is perfect."
In this situation, person 2 is correct.
___
Please answer my other point, if we are to accept that there are distortions resulting from translation, why is it hard to accept that other, important texts were omitted, or that certain facts were added?